Introduction to Financial Management


  1. Tim has been promoted and is now in charge of all fixed asset purchases. In other words, Tim is in charge
    of:
    A. capital structure management.
    B. asset allocation.
    C. risk management.
    D. capital budgeting.
    E. working capital management.
    2. Stadford, Inc. is financed with 40 percent debt and 60 percent equity. This mixture of debt and equity is
    referred to as the firm’s:
    A. capital structure.
    B. capital budget.
    C. asset allocation.
    D. working capital.
    E. risk structure.
    3. Lester’s BBQ has $121,000 in current assets and $109,000 in current liabilities. These values as referred
    to as the firm’s:
    A. capital structure.
    B. cash equivalents.
    C. working capital.
    D. net assets.
    E. fixed accounts.
    4. Margie opened a used book store and is both the 100 percent owner and the store’s manager. Which type
    of business entity does Margie own if she is personally liable for all the store’s debts?
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. Limited partnership
    C. Corporation
    D. Joint stock company
    E. General partnership
    5. Will and Bill both enjoy sunshine, water, and surfboards. Thus, the two friends decided to create a
    business together renting surfboards, paddle boats, and inflatable devices in California. Will and Bill will
    equally share in the decision making and in the profits or losses. Which type of business did they create if
    they both have full personal liability for the firm’s debts?
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. Limited partnership
    C. Corporation
    D. Joint stock company
    E. General partnership
    6. Todd and Cathy created a firm that is a separate legal entity and will share ownership of that firm on a 50/
    50 basis. Which type of entity did they create if they have no personal liability for the firm’s debts?
    A. Limited partnership
    B. Corporation
    C. Sole proprietorship
    D. General partnership
    E. Public company
    7. The potential conflict of interest between a firm’s owners and its managers is referred to as which type of
    conflict?
    A. Organizational
    B. Structure
    C. Formation
    D. Agency
    E. Territorial
    8. The federal government has a tax claim on the cash flows of The Window Store. This claim is defined as
    a claim by one of the firm’s:
    A. residual owners.
    B. shareholders.
    C. financiers.
    D. provisional partners.
    E. stakeholders.
    9. The “Say on Pay” bill requires corporations to do which one of the following?
    A. Give the chairman of the board the final say on executive pay
    B. Give the firm’s creditors a nonbinding say on executive pay
    C. Give the firm’s creditors a binding say on executive pay
    D. Give shareholders a nonbinding vote on executive pay
    E. Give shareholders a binding vote on executive pay
    10. In 2009, the Obama administration established a maximum limit on executive salaries for firms that
    received bailout funds. What was the amount of that salary limit?
    A. $250,000
    B. $500,000
    C. $750,000
    D. $1,000,000
    E. $1,500,000
    11. Jamie is employed as a commercial loan officer for a regional bank centered in the Midwestern section of
    the U.S. Her job falls into which one of the following areas of finance?
    A. International finance
    B. Financial institutions
    C. Corporate finance
    D. Capital management
    E. Investments
    12. If you accept a job as a domestic security analyst for a brokerage firm, you are most likely working in
    which one of the following financial areas?
    A. international finance
    B. private placements
    C. corporate finance
    D. capital management
    E. investments
    13. Which one of the following occupations best fits into the international area of finance?
    A. Bank teller
    B. Treasury bill analyst
    C. Currency trader
    D. Insurance risk manager
    E. Local bank manager
    14. Which of the following individuals commonly use finance in the course of their job?
    I. Chief financial officers
    II. Accountants
    III. Security analysts
    IV. Strategic managers
    A. I and II only
    B. III and IV only
    C. I and III only
    D. I, II, and III only
    E. I, II, III, and IV
    15. Which one of the following functions should be assigned to the treasurer rather than the controller?
    A. Data processing
    B. Cost accounting
    C. Tax management
    D. Cash management
    E. Financial accounting
    16. Which one of the following correctly defines a common chain of command within a corporation?
    A. The controller reports directly to corporate treasurer.
    B. The treasurer reports directly to the board of directors.
    C. The chief financial officer reports directly to the board of directors.
    D. The credit manager reports directly to the controller.
    E. The controller reports directly to the chief financial officer.
    17. Capital budgeting includes the evaluation of which of the following?
    A. Size of future cash flows only
    B. Size and timing of future cash flows only
    C. Timing and risk of future cash flows only
    D. Risk and size of future cash flows only
    E. Size, timing, and risk of future cash flows
    18. Which one of the following is a working capital decision?
    A. How should the firm raise additional capital to fund its expansion?
    B. What debt-equity ratio is best suited to our firm?
    C. What is the cost of debt financing?
    D. Which type of debt is best suited to finance our inventory?
    E. How much cash should the firm keep in reserve?
    19. Which one of the following is a capital structure decision?
    A. Determining the optimal inventory level
    B. Establishing the preferred debt-equity level
    C. Selecting new equipment to purchase
    D. Setting the terms of sale for credit sales
    E. Determining when suppliers should be paid
    20. Working capital management includes which one of the following?
    A. Deciding which new projects to accept
    B. Deciding whether to purchase a new machine or fix a current machine
    C. Determining which customers will be granted credit
    D. Determining how many new shares of stock should be issued
    E. Establishing the target debt-equity ratio
    21. The daily financial operations of a firm are primarily controlled by managing the:
    A. total debt level.
    B. working capital.
    C. capital structure.
    D. capital budget.
    E. long-term liabilities.
    22. A sole proprietorship:
    A. provides limited liability for its owner.
    B. involves significant legal costs during the formation process.
    C. has an unlimited life.
    D. has its profits taxed as personal income.
    E. can generally raise significant capital from non-owner sources.
    23. Which one of the following forms of business organization offers liability protection to some of its
    owners but not to all of its owners?
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. General partnership
    C. Limited partnership
    D. Limited liability company
    E. Corporation
    24. Maria is the sole proprietor of an antique store which she has operated at the same location for the past
    16 years. The store rents the space in which it is located but does own all of the inventory and fixtures.
    The store has an outstanding loan with the local bank but no other debt obligations. There are no specific
    loan covenants or assets pledged as security for the loan. Due to a sudden and unexpected downturn in the
    economy, the store is unable to generate sufficient funds to pay the loan payments due to the bank. Which
    of the following options does the bank have to collect the money it is owed?
    I. Sell the inventory and use the cash raised to apply to the debt
    II. Sell the store fixtures and use the cash raised to apply to the debt
    III. Take funds from Maria’s personal account at the bank to pay the store’s debt
    IV. Sell any assets Maria personally owns and apply the proceeds to the store’s debt
    A. I only
    B. III only
    C. I and II only
    D. I, II, and III only
    E. I, II, III, and IV
    25. Which one of the following statements correctly applies to a sole proprietorship?
    A. The business entity has an unlimited life.
    B. The ownership can easily be transferred to another individual.
    C. The owner enjoys limited liability for the firm’s debts.
    D. Debt financing is easy to arrange in the firm’s name.
    E. Obtaining additional equity is dependent on the owner’s personal finances.
    26. Which one of the following applies to a general partnership?
    A. The firm’s operations must be controlled by a single partner.
    B. Any one of the partners can be held solely liable for all of the partnership’s debt.
    C. The profits of the firm are taxed as a separate entity.
    D. Each partner’s liability for the firm’s debts is limited to each partner’s investment in the firm.
    E. The profits of a general partnership are taxed the same as those of a corporation.
    27. In a general partnership, each partner is personally liable for:
    A. the partnership debts that he or she created.
    B. his or her proportionate share of all partnership debts regardless of which partner incurred that debt.
    C. the total debts of the partnership, even if he or she was unaware of those debts.
    D. the debts of the partnership up to the amount he or she invested in the firm.
    E.
    all personal and partnership debts incurred by any partner, even if he or she was unaware of those
    debts.
    28. Which one of the following is an advantage of being a limited partner?
    A. Non-taxable share of any profits
    B. Control over the daily operations of the firm
    C. Losses limited to capital invested
    D. Unlimited profits without risk of incurring a loss
    E. Active market for ownership interest
    29. Which one of the following statements about a limited partnership is correct?
    A. All partners have their losses limited to their capital investment in the partnership.
    B. All partners are treated equally.
    C. There must be at least one general partner.
    D. Equity financing is easy to obtain and unlimited.
    E. Any partner can transfer his or her ownership interest without ending the partnership.
    30. A corporation:
    A. is ultimately controlled by its board of directors.
    B. is a legal entity separate from its owners.
    C. is prohibited from entering into contractual agreements.
    D. has its identity defined by its bylaws.
    E. has its existence regulated by the rules set forth in its charter.
    31. Which one of the following is contained in the corporate bylaws?
    A. Procedures for electing corporate directors
    B. State of incorporation
    C. Number of authorized shares
    D. Intended life of the corporation
    E. Business purpose of the corporation
    32. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of organization?
    I. Ability to raise large sums of equity capital
    II. Ease of ownership transfer
    III. Profits taxed at the corporate level
    IV. Limited liability for all owners
    A. I and II only
    B. III and IV only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    E. I, II, III, and IV
    33. Corporate shareholders:
    A. are proportionately liable for the firm’s debts.
    B. are protected from all losses.
    C. have the ability to change the corporation’s bylaws.
    D. receive tax-free distributions since all profits are taxed at the corporate level.
    E. have basically no control over the actual corporation.
    34. A limited liability company:
    A. is a hybrid between a sole proprietorship and a partnership.
    B. prefers its profits be taxed as personal income to its owners.
    C. that meets the IRS criteria to be an LLC will be taxed like a corporation.
    D. provides limited liability for some, but not all, of its owners.
    E. cannot be created for professional service firms, such as accountants and attorneys.
    35. Limited liability companies are primarily designed to:
    A.
    allow a portion of its owners to enjoy limited liability while granting the other portion of its owners
    control over the entity.
    B. provide the benefits of the corporate structure to foreign-based entities.
    C. spin-off a wholly-owned subsidiary.
    D. allow companies to reorganize themselves through the bankruptcy process.
    E. provide limited liability while avoiding double taxation.
    36. The primary goal of financial management is to maximize which one of the following for a corporation?
    A. Current profits
    B. Market share
    C. Number of shares outstanding
    D. Market value of existing stock
    E. Revenue growth
    37. Which one of the following best matches the primary goal of financial management?
    A. Increasing the dollar amount of each sale
    B. Increasing traffic flow within the firm’s stores
    C. Transforming fixed costs into variable costs
    D. Increasing the firm’s liquidity
    E. Increasing the market value of firm
    38. The goal of financial management is to increase the:
    A. future value of the firm’s total equity.
    B. book value of equity.
    C. dividends paid per share.
    D. current market value per share.
    E. number of shares outstanding.
    39. What is the goal of financial management for a sole proprietorship?
    A. Maximize net income given the current resources of the firm
    B. Decrease long-term debt to reduce the risk to the owner
    C. Minimize the tax impact on the proprietor
    D. Maximize the market value of the equity
    E. Minimize the reliance on fixed costs
    40. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act in 2002 was prompted by which one of the following from the 1990’s?
    A. Increased stock market volatility
    B. Corporate accounting and financial fraud
    C. Increased executive compensation
    D. Increased foreign investment in U.S. stock markets
    E. Increased use of tax loopholes
    41. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 has:
    A. reduced the annual compliance costs of all publicly traded firms in the U.S.
    B. decreased senior management’s involvement in the corporate annual report.
    C. greatly increased the number of U.S. firms that are going public for the first time.
    D. decreased the number of U.S. firms going public on foreign exchanges.
    E. made officers of publicly traded firms personally responsible for the firm’s financial statements.
    42. Which one of the following best describes the primary intent of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?
    A. Increase the costs of going public
    B. Increase protection against corporate fraud
    C. Limit secondary issues of corporate securities
    D. Decrease the number of publicly traded firms
    E. Increase the number of firms that “go dark”
    43. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
    A. makes the officers of a public corporation personally responsible for the firm’s financial statements.
    B. requires all corporations to fully disclose its financial dealings to the general public.
    C. places the responsibility for a firm’s financial statements solely on the chief financial officer.
    D. requires that the board of directors be solely responsible for the firm’s financial dealings.
    E.
    places total responsibility for the financial statements of a firm on the auditor who certifies the
    statements.
    44. Which one of the following situations is most apt to create an agency conflict?
    A. Compensating a manager based on his or her division’s net income
    B. Giving all employees a bonus if a certain level of efficiency is maintained
    C. Hiring an independent consultant to study the operating efficiency of the firm
    D. Rejecting a profitable project to protect employee jobs
    E. Selling an underproducing segment of the firm
    45. Which one of the following is most apt to create a situation where an agency conflict could arise?
    A. Increasing the size of a firm’s operations
    B. Downsizing a firm
    C. Separating management from ownership
    D. Decreasing employee turnover
    E. Reducing both management and non-management salaries
    46. Which one of the following is most apt to align management’s priorities with shareholders’ interests?
    A. Increasing employee retirement benefits
    B.
    Compensating managers with shares of stock that must be held for 3 years before the shares can be
    sold
    C.
    Allowing a manager to decorate his or her own office once he or she has been in that office for a period
    of 3 years or more
    D. Increasing the number of paid holidays that long-term employees are entitled to receive
    E. Allowing employees to retire early with full retirement benefits
    47. Which of the following are effective means of aligning management goals with shareholder interests?
    I. Employee stock options
    II. Threat of a takeover
    III. Management bonuses tied to performance goals
    IV. Threat of a proxy fight
    A. I and III only
    B. II and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I, III, and IV only
    E. I, II, III, and IV
    48. Marti had an unexpected surprise when she ate her Lotsa Good cereal this morning. She found a piece of
    metal mixed in her cereal. The potential claim which Marti has against this firm is that of a(n):
    A. general creditor.
    B. debtholder.
    C. shareholder.
    D. stakeholder.
    E. agent.
    49. Which one of the following transactions occurred in the primary market?
    A. Maria gave 100 shares of Alto stock to her best friend.
    B. Gene purchased 300 shares of Alto stock from Ted.
    C. South Wind Products sold 1,000 shares of newly issued stock to Mike.
    D. Terry sold 3,000 shares of Uno stock to his brother.
    E. The president of Trecco, Inc. sold 500 shares of Trecco stock to his son.
    50. Valerie bought 200 shares of Able stock today. Able stock has been trading for some time on the NYSE.
    Valerie’s purchase occurred in which market?
    A. Dealer market
    B. Over-the-counter market
    C. Secondary market
    D. Primary market
    E. Tertiary market
    51. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    A. All secondary markets are dealer markets.
    B. All secondary markets are broker markets.
    C. All stock trades between existing shareholders are secondary market transactions.
    D. All stock transactions are secondary market transactions.
    E. All Dutch auction sales are secondary market transactions.
    52. Ted currently owns 100 shares of a publicly traded stock which he would like to sell. Which one of the
    following provides the most efficient means for Ted to sell his shares?
    A. Issuer sponsored Dutch auction
    B. Proxy statement
    C. Private placement transaction
    D. Stakeholder purchase
    E. Secondary market transaction
    53. Which one of the following parties can sell shares of ABC stock in the primary market?
    A. ABC company
    B. Any corporation, other than the ABC company
    C. Institutional shareholder
    D. Private individual shareholder
    E. Any of the above
    54. Which one of the following statements related to securities dealers is correct?
    A. Dealers match buyers with sellers.
    B. Dealers buy and sell from their own inventory.
    C. Dealers operate on a physical trading floor.
    D. Dealers operate exclusively in auction markets.
    E. Dealers are limited to trading non-listed stocks.
    55. An auction market:
    A. is an electronic means of exchanging securities.
    B. has a physical trading floor.
    C. handles primary market transactions exclusively.
    D. is also referred to as an OTC market.
    E. is dealer based.
    56. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    A. NASDAQ has more listed stocks than does the NYSE.
    B. The NYSE is a dealer market.
    C. NASDAQ is an auction market.
    D. NASDAQ has the most stringent listing requirements of any U.S. exchange.
    E. The trading floor for NASDAQ is located in Chicago.
    57. Which one of the following is a general characteristic of a securities broker?
    A. Trades from his or her own inventory
    B. Trades only foreign securities
    C. Trades listed securities in an auction market
    D. Trades electronically from any geographic location
    E. Is the principal trader of debt securities
    58. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    A. All of the major stock exchanges are U.S. based.
    B. The NYSE was created by the National Association of Securities Dealers in the early 1970’s.
    C. The American Stock Exchange is a dealer market.
    D. OTC markets have a physical trading floor generally located in either New York City or Chicago.
    E. The primary purpose of the NYSE is to match buyers with sellers.